• null@lemmy.nullspace.lol
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    3 days ago

    Ah okay, so you wanted to clarify that the condescension part is irrelevant.

    Your actual stance is: Any women who believes a man is being misogynistic towards them is actually being misandrous herself.

    Still a wild stance to hold publicly, but thanks for clarifying.

    • Madison420@lemmy.world
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      3 days ago

      No the sex or gender is the irrelevant part unless you have more and that aside using sexist terms is you guessed it, sexist.

        • Madison420@lemmy.world
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          3 days ago

          How do you attach it to condescension? Why do you even assume they see anyone as a woman at all? Moreover define woman, Heidi Klum, woman? Caitlyn Jenner, woman? Let’s get granular and I’m sure it’ll get less sexist at some point.

          • null@lemmy.nullspace.lol
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            3 days ago

            How do you attach it to condescension?

            You don’t – hence why I’ve repeatedly stated it’s defined as “misogynistic condescension” and not merely “condescension”.

            The misogyny is the modifier.

            Why do you even assume they see anyone as a woman at all?

            The only way for you to square this up is to either concede that you think any woman who believes a man is being misogynist towards them is herself being misandrous – or that misogyny and misandry don’t exist at all.

            Which is it?

            • Madison420@lemmy.world
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              3 days ago

              And then added you do not think a woman can mansplain which negates any argument you have that it isn’t sexist.

              Not what I said at all but nice try.

              I said if all you have is your perception and their ____ sex, race, banana preference whatever and you base a conclusion solely on that you’re a bigot.

              I said the term mansplain is specifically sexist and using it makes you a sexist. You simply refuse to admit that derogatorily gendering a specific type of condescension is by definition sexist.

              I have asked about a half dozen times now two specific questions you’ve yet to answer.

              1. Is calling someone a hard r because of my perception and their race in fact racist?

              2. How is using a term that is specifically and explicitly sexist not in fact sexist.

              • null@lemmy.nullspace.lol
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                3 days ago

                And then added you do not think a woman can mansplain which negates any argument you have that it isn’t sexist.

                Only if misogyny isn’t sexist.

                Is calling someone a hard r because of my perception and their race in fact racist?

                Calling someone a hard r is almost always racist.

                How is using a term that is specifically and explicitly sexist not in fact sexist.

                You’ve failed to demonstrate that it is “specifically and explicitly sexist”.

                • Madison420@lemmy.world
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                  3 days ago

                  It’s by definition sexist.

                  prejudice or discrimination based on sex

                  And around someone is mansplaining is always sexist though I do legit wonder when your not racist hard R’s come into play.

                  prejudice or discrimination based on sex

                  Is it prejudicial or discriminatory based on sex? Then it’s sexist, you may think it’s moral and that’s an argument I guess you could make but there is no question it’s a sexist term in the same way femsplaining would be and btw they both sound extremely dumb.

                  • null@lemmy.nullspace.lol
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                    3 days ago

                    We can dress it up however you like. Your claim is now: Any woman who believes a man is being misogynistic towards her is actually herself being prejudiced or discriminatory towards him.

                    Still a pretty whacky opinion, but if you like that better, who am I to stop you.