The catarrhine who invented a perpetual motion machine, by dreaming at night and devouring its own dreams through the day.

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Joined 9 months ago
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Cake day: January 12th, 2024

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  • Then as you ask “provide sources.”, it says simply “Source: Tech Review Websites”. If this came from an actual person I would genuinely ask it “do you take me for gullible trash?”.

    It’s still somewhat useful, due to Google Search crumbling away into nothingness, if you ask “link me five sites with info about [topic]”.








  • As I checked from an article, at least in Mandarin the usage of particles happens alongside the change in intonation, not at the expense of it.

    Also note that even [some? all?] Germanic languages show something similar - but instead of a particle, you get a syntactical movement (verb fronting) overtly marking the question. Examples:

    English German
    This is an apple. Das ist ein Apfel.
    Is this an apple? Ist das ein Apfel?
    The cat meows. Die Katze miaut.
    Does the cat meow? Miaut die Katze?

    In English this is slightly obscured by do-support being obligatory for most verbs, but note how it’s the same process - if you were to insert the “do” without a question, in the third sentence, it would end as “the cat does meow”.


  • I was expecting Mandarin to be an exception, since the language uses pitch to encode different words; apparently it isn’t, the speakers simply “abstract” the phonemic vs. phrasal pitch variations as two different things, when interpreting the sentence. Check figure 6.

    And while there is a particle overtly conveying “this is a question”, ⟨吗⟩ /ma⁰/ (the “0” indicates neutral tone), it seems that you can couple it with an assertive phrasal pitch to convey rhetorical questions. And other languages (like e.g. German and English, that overtly mark questions with verb fronting) show a similar pattern.

    I also found some literature claiming that it might be cross-linguistically consistent

    The most important observations are the following:

    1. pitch tends to decline from the beginning of an IP [intonational phrase] to the end, a tendency known as declination;
    2. the beginning of an IP may be marked by a local sharp rise in pitch or “reset”;
    3. in IPs that are utterance-final and/or in statements, there may be a local drop in pitch at the end of the IP in addition to any overall declination spanning the IP as a whole;
    4. in IPs that are in questions and/or are not utterance-final, declination may be moderated, suspended or even reversed, i.e. the overall trend may be less steeply declining, level, or even slightly rising;
    5. in addition to exhibiting reduced declination, non-final and interrogative IPs may also have a local rise in pitch at the end, or at least have no local drop.

    The validity of these observations, as general tendencies, is not in doubt.

    The article also lays out some potential explanations for this. The basic gist of it is, nobody knows why but everyone has a guess.

    EDIT: as another user (ABCDE) correctly pointed out, keep in mind that this works differently for open-ended vs. yes/no questions.




  • [Caveat lector: I’m not from language acquisition, my main area of knowledge within Linguistics is Historical Linguistics.]

    Native proficiency is a result of a language acquisition ability that is not well understood and disappears early into child development.

    That’s the critical period hypothesis. It’s more complicated than it looks like, and academically divisive; some say that it’s simply the result of people having higher exposure and incentive to learn a language before they’re 12yo, while some claim that it’s due to changes in cerebral structures over time.

    And then there’s people like Chomsky who claim that the so-called “window of opportunity” is to learn Language as a human faculty, not to learn a specific language like Mandarin, Spanish, English etc.