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Joined 1 year ago
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Cake day: June 23rd, 2023

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  • I’m not entirely sure this reasoning makes sense. Take, for example, a politician that is only motivated to be in politics because he wants fame. Does this mean that none of his actions are politically motivated because his true motives are apolitical?

    It seems to me that the act of choosing a political target, in and of itself, is a political motivation, as the political landscape has been the main informant of their decision.

    I can see some merit to your argument, though, and perhaps I’m being overly focused on semantics?



  • Did you watch the entire debate, or just the highlights? I don’t think acknowledging he was completely cogent for 99.9% of it is minimizing anything, but that’s not part of the narrative the media are pushing.

    I don’t particularly like Biden, but my main concern at this point is keeping Trump out by any means necessary. Sacking the incumbent four months prior to the election is a dangerous gamble, especially so if he isn’t willing to step down himself.

    In any case, it looks like it’s going to have to happen now regardless, but I sincerely believe it’s more because of the media’s irresponsible coverage than any actual substantive issue.









  • Did you read the paper from my 2nd link? There seems to be a growing body of evidence that suggests that is indeed possible:

    Similar to the increase in the prevalence of persistent median arteries of the forearms, the prevalence of other anatomical features such as spina bifida occulta (Henneberg & Henneberg 1999; Solomon et al., 2009; Lee et al., 2010), tarsal coalitions (Solomon et al., 2003) and fabella (Berthaume et al., 2019) has increased over the last 2–3 centuries. Evidence indicates that changes in the natural selection pressures acting on these specific anatomical features could have caused microevolutionary processes, leading to the observed increases in prevalence rates (Henneberg and Henneberg 1999; Solomon et al., 2009; Lee et al., 2010; Rühli and Henneberg, 2013; Berthaume et al., 2019).

    Obviously actual research would have to be done to confirm or deny it in this case, and I probably should have stated my original thought a bit more skeptically.


  • I was reading over the paper and found the source of that particular usage:

    Furthermore, in a study by Henneberg and George (1995; Am J Phys Anthropol 96, 329–334), has suggested that increasing prevalence of the median artery during the 20th century was a ‘possible secular trend’.

    LOL. I kinda want to follow that citation for the full quote.

    Edit: I found the original source that gives some further context:

    The occurrence in historical times of changes in human body size and in the timing of events in postnatal development, such as, for instance, sexual maturation, is well known and documented. Such changes occurring from century to century or decade to decade are known as “secular trends.”

    So I guess it’s actually domain specific jargon.