• bennypr0fane@discuss.tchncs.de
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    1 day ago

    What does that have to do with anything? Whenever a man has an orgasm, the prostate adds its juice to the ejaculate - regardless of how the orgasm was achieved. Hence, there is no climax where the prostate isn’t involved. That’s why I was saying every orgasm is technically a prostate orgasm. Also, when OP takes about his goth queen giving him a “prostate orgasm”, I very much doubt she stuck to exclusively stimulating the prostate. Very likely, she just added direct stimulation of the prostate to what most people do to make a guy cum. So, if true, it would have been rather a penis+prostate orgasm, if we name it after the body parts the that were stimulated.

    • stoicmaverick@lemmy.world
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      8 hours ago

      Well then your first argument just got creamed by your second one, because the prostate isn’t stimulated with every ejaculation. It’s just a contributor to the final Batter-Blast™ just like the testes. The difference, is that trans rectal manipulation of the prostate, either with, or without simultaneous stimulation of the penits, yields a much different and usually stronger Cummingtonite, than without it. Actually, this would be a lot easier with an example, do you have a prostate, or one nearby that you can use?